Did John Write Eleleu-ih (el-e-lu-ee) Mighty God Lives
Alleluia, ...Praise the Egyptian moon god Yah
In Revelation 19

Dr. G. Reckart
Copyright All Rights Reserved 2000

Hallelujah More Facts

Who is "ia" in alleluia? 14th c, From Latin alleluja, Greek allelouia, Aramaic hallelu-yah or Jah: "praise Jehovah, praise Yahweh, praise the Lord."


Maybe you should check out Strong's #1180.

Baal is Yah. Baal is Jah. Baal is Jehovah. Baal is Yahweh. And Baal means also "lord."

So if you believe saying alleluia means praise Jesus you are instantly making Jesus "ia" and then Yah, then Jah, then Jehovah, and then Yahweh. Since these are all names of Baal and since Baal also means lord, if you say alleluia means praise the lord, you have done nothing but say Yah, Jah, Jehovah, and Yahweh are Baal.

How did alleluia get into the book of Revelation? There is only one possible answer. It was interpolated, inserted into it way after it was written. By whom? We do not know. We know this: Revelation chapter 7 has a parallel record of the same event in Revelation 19 and in chapter 7 there is no alleluia. This is proof it could not have been in the original chapter 19.

But, you can continue to scream alleluia. But just remember it is not praising Jesus Christ. His name was never Yah, Jah, Jehovah, or Yahweh.

The highest praise to Jesus was Hosanna when he came into Jerusalem riding the donkey. They certainly did not shout alleluia or halleluyah. So far as we know they never knew these words.

Hosanna in the highest. Now that is bible.

Bishop Gary Reckart
A man God made

Alleluia appears to be an interpolation in Revelation 19. It does not appear in the same setting in Revelation chapter 7. It was never spoken on earth or heard by anyone in the New Testament Church. The multitude cried "hosanna" not alleluia. There is no evidence that the holy language in heaven will be Latin. If indeed this word is not an interpolation which I believe it is, there is only one other solution to this word so that it is not a praise to a pagan deity named Yah. While many connect Yah to Jehovah and Yahweh, this is just guessing at best and outright lying at worst. To call Yah the Lord and say alleluia means "praise the Lord" is total apostasy. It is a sin to call a pagan deity by the great title Lord.

The names Jehovah and Yahweh did not exist in the days of Jesus and the Apostles. Jehovah was invented around 1260AD and Yahweh was invented around 1567AD. Both of these invented by Catholic monks. How could they even be in any bible before they were invented?

Alleluia-praise Yah/Jah; praise Jehovah; praise Yahweh; praise the Lord (Strong's. Webster's, BDB).

Revelation 19:1 "alleluia" (KJV);
NLT-praise the Lord;
BSB- "
HCS- "
ASV- "
GWT- "
KJP- "
NCT- "
OJB-praise hashem (Orthodox Jewish Bible);
WYC- "
YLT- "
TNT- "

Eleven out of twenty one use "hallelujah."
Six out of twenty one translations use "alleluia."
Two out of twenty one use "halleluyah."
One out of twenty one uses "praise hashem."
One out of twenty one uses "praise the Lord."

The word "hallelujah" was invented by George F. Handel and used in his Christmas musical at Christ Catholic Church in Dublin, Ireland in 1741. Before this it had never been heard in any church in the world. From Catholicism it passed to Protestantism. And from there to all the daughters of the whore.

Alleluia is a latin word according to alleluia (Greek NT - Westcott-Hort ) Revelation 19:1 meta tauta hkousa wV fwnhn megalhn oclou pollou en tw ouranw legontwn allhlouia h swthria kai h doxa kai h dunamiV tou qeou hmwn.

(Greek NT - W-H ) Revelation 19:1 meta tauta hkousa wV fwnhn megalhn oclou pollou en tw ouranw legontwn allhlouia h swthria kai h doxa kai h dunamiV tou qeou hmwn .

Revelation 19:1 And after these things I heard a great voice of much people in heaven, saying, Alleluia; Salvation, and glory, and honour, and power, unto the Lord our God.

Note:  you will discover that "allhlouia h" may have been an attempt to pronounce "eleleu-ih."  Observe:  alleluia--pronunced al - lay - loo - ee - ah (Strongs #239): hence allh-louia--allh is from ele; louia is from leu; and ia is a corruption of ih. Scholars have manipulated the true Greek word "eleleu-ih" into "alleluia" as a pronunciation.  They did the same manipulative perversion on "sabachthanai" in Mat 27:46 and Mark 15:34!  Then in perversion step #2 they take "alleluia" and make it into Hallelujah! Thus they have John hearing people in heaven praising a pagan deity which he could not have heard.  Why would our Bible translators purposely pervert the original Word of God and replace "eleleu-ih" with "alleluia"? The word alleluia is not in the original writings of Revelation 19:1-6 it could not have existed because it is absent in Revelation Chapter 7 which reports the very same event.

Below are some interesting comments from alleged scholars which I will use to prove "alleluia" and "hallelujah" are false.

Adam Clarke Commentary on Revelation 19:1


Verse 1. I heard a great voice of much people in heaven] The idolatrous city being destroyed, and the blood of the martyred saints being avenged, there is a universal joy among the redeemed of the Lord, which they commence with the word hy wllh Hallelu-Yah, praise ye Jah or Jehovah; which the Septuagint, and St. John from them, put into Greek letters thus: allhlouia, Allelou-ia, a form of praise which the heathens appear (notice his opinion "APPEAR") to have borrowed from the Jews, as is evident from their paeans, or hymns in honour of Apollo, which began and ended with eleleu ih, eleleu ie; a mere corruption of the Hebrew words."

Dr. Reckart Note:  Why would ancient worshipers of Apollo be speaking Hebrew to a Greek god unless there was a connection between Paleo-Hebrew and Greek?  And then, did they say eleleu ih, eleleu ie  or alleluia? His charge that eleleu ih, eleleu ie  are a corruption of a Hebrew word is false.  What is that Hebrew word if it is a corruption? How neat he did not give it. What is false, is his claim that allelou-ia, a fabricated word, is the correct pronounciation of a Hebrew word. He offers no proof for his theory or statement. The word eleleu ih more then likely came from ancient antiquity when men still had in them a conscience of worship of the one true God in the original tongue of Adam (where El, Eloah, and Eloih in full or contracted form was spoken).  After the ancients departed from this El God of the Bible, they used the same praise words for their idols, images, and gods.  That pagan idols and images are called "elohim and elohims" is proof of using the name El of God for false gods. The praise allelou-ia (a fabricated word), is just as well a perversion since we find other Bible things perverted by Gentile nations.  Eleleu ih (eleleu ie) could very well be an exact preservation in Greek of what the original Paleo-Hebrew said but corrupted into alleluia when the Israelites and Gentiles worshipped in one form or another the pagan moon god Ia, Ya, Yah, or Jah.  

What language did John hear the multitude speaking in heaven?  Was it Spanish, Russian, Chinese, Italian, Greek, Paleo-Hebrew, Aramaic, or some other tongue? Notice John does not hear all of heaven in the Revelation 19 text; JUST A PARTICULAR MULTITUDE! Could this multitude be Greeks who were saved and whom John himself would end out his days as a Missionary?  I believe so! John then would hear them speaking in their Greek tongue the ancient Paleo-Hebrew praise to God but now directed toward Jesus.  Did not the Jews take ancient praise, religious practices, and ceremonies and fashion them to worship other idols and gods they worshipped?  Why of course they did!  Did these perverted uses alter the once ancient sanctity of these praises to the true God?  Of course not!  

What does eleleu ih, eleleu ie mean?

"Eleleu!" is a cry of encouragement (from elelizo ele-lizo, meaning God or a god from ele (elohim) and "lizo" who lives (one who lives or is living); or anciently in Paleo-Hebrew MIGHTY GOD who lives. It is a rally cry like saying of Jesus "MIGHTY GOD, ...HE LIVES."  So among the Greeks: to say "el-el-euih"  to Apollo or some other god was to shout to one another that the god was mighty and lived, was alive!  What did this multitude shout about Jesus whom John saw in heaven?  Looking at Jesus on the throne: they shouted "eleleu (God lives, or our God is alive): salvation (soteria), and glory (doxa) , and honour (time), and power (dunamis), unto the Lord  (Kurios) our God (theos)."

John heard: eleleu-ie; soteria, doxa, time, dunamis, Kurios theos.


SALVATION, and GLORY, and HONOUR, and POWER, unto the LORD our GOD!

And they spoke Greek when they said all these words, for John wrote down Greek words they spoke to send to Greek speaking Churches!  Why then would he write one alleged perverted Hebrew word among all these Greek words?  If John did not write this alleged perverted Hebrew word, then who wrote it? Not only does it not make rational sense for Adam Clarke to make his claim, we know they did not say "alleluia" or "hallelujah." Did John hear the multitude speaking Greek?  If he heard them speaking somw other language, why is it he wrote everything down in Greek?  Notice that Adam Clarke tells us the Greeks used the praise "eleleu-ih or elelu-ie." Then he neatly fabicates like all the other perverters an excuse for the false word "alleluia, (Praise Yah the moon god; ...note: scholars say this means praise the Lord, thus calling the moon god lord)."

May I ask why Adam Clarke even confessed there were two ancient words (eleleu ih, eleleu ie) if they had no revelance to the praise now found in most Greek text since the time of Erasmaus and his Textus Receptus?  Upon what authority or proof can it be said that "eleleu-ih and eleleu-ie" are a corruption of a Hebrew word and the correct Hebrew word is alleluia?  Upon what authority can it be said that alleluia is the correct praise John heard and they were saying "PRAISE YAH TO A GOD WHOSE NAME WAS JESUS?

Is YAH, the name of the Egyptian moon god, going to be the new name of Jesus as some claim (Revelation 3:12)? When did Jesus begin to be called YAH? How come those who claim Yah is Jesus will not also call him Baal? You do know Baal is Yah? Check Strong's H1180. Will you also call Jesus Baal? Where is the historical proof? Calling Jesus Yah (Baal) and or also the moon god is praising him with the names of idol gods and applying idolatry to our God and Savior! Shame on you.

This insane conjecture is used to justify the interpolation of "alleluia" into the Word of God and then make this  heavenly saved multitude praise Jesus as the Egyptian Yah god!  I do not beleive we would have this Yah praise to Jesus missing on earth in our Bible and then get to heaven and find out Jesus' name was really Yah and instead of saying "praise Jesus" we are now going to be saying hallelu-Yah to an Egyptian moon god!

Robertson's NT Word Studies

19:1 {After these things} (\meta tauta\). Often when a turn comes in this book. But Beckwith is probably correct in seeing in 19:1-5 the climax of chapter Re 18. This first voice (verses 1,2) \h“s ph“nˆn megalˆn ouchlou pollou\ (as it were great voice of much multitude) is probably the response of the angelic host (Re 5:11; Heb 12:22). There is responsive singing (grand chorus) as in chapters Re 4; 5. {Saying} (\legont“n\). Present active participle of \leg“\, genitive plural, though \ochlou\ is genitive singular (collective substantive, agreement in sense). {Hallelujah} (\Allˆlouia\). Transliteration of the Babylonian Aramiac seen often only in the Psalms (LXX) and in III. Macc. 7:13, in N.T. only in Re 19:1,3,4,6. They say it means, "Praise ye the Lord." Fifteen of the Psalms begin or end with this word. The Great Hallel (a title for Ps 104-109) is sung chiefly at the feasts of the passover and tabernacles. This psalm of praise uses language already in 12:10.

Dr. Reckart Note: Robertson stops short of mentioning the real Greek word John actually heard in heaven.  He says "all-louia" and brackets "hallelujah" claiming this is a transliteration of Hebrew (but his Hebrew is really Babylonian Aramaic) for praise the Lord.  But who is this "Lord?"  They say "ia" is the same as "Ya" and this is the same as "Yah."  Thus they confess the Lord being praised is a god named "Yah."  Now who is this "Yah" god they have the multitude in heaven praising? If you want to know, check out Strong's #1180, #1167, and #1168. It may shock you to see this Yah is Baal.  Where is Jesus?  Did Jesus change his name to "Yah" or Baal in heaven? Yah is the Egyptian moon god. And this Yah was anciently worshiped by paganized Jewish Baalite worshipers.  If the God the multitude in heaven worships really a "Yah" god?  I shudder to think God is Yah the moon god!

Interpretation from the Received Text

Greek239. allelouia, al-lay-loo'-ee-ah; of Heb. or. [imper. of Heb1984 and Heb3050]; praise ye Jah, an adoring exclamation:-alleluiah.

Dr. Reckart Note: Notice in this rendering alle is al-lay, loo is lou, and ee-ah is ia.  Thus ee-ah is the pronounciaton of "ia" AND NOT YA OR YAH!  These two letters are not "ya", the "i" in this word having the ee sound and not the "y" sound.  Thus, "ia" is not Yah!  It may be conjectured and opinioned to be "Yah" but that is only an opinion.  To place an opinion in the text of Revelation 19:1-5 is then wrong.

The Greek followers of Apollo constantly sung the word "ieue" to his praise. This they did in the temple of Delphi, and they continued the same "ieue" praise in the Greek temples at Rome. Dr. Parkhurst takes this Greek praise and compares it to ".*-&-%"elulim" and then tries to make the Greek praise a plagerism of the Aramaic Hebrew praise thus making them one and the same.  He takes "%*-&-% (elluie) and in his personal opinion says it means Praise ye Jah— Eng. Marg. Hallelujah.

This concerns me because there is no evidence the worshipers of Apollo even knew of a Jewish praise to a Yah god!  How could they come to use a praise to a "Yah" god and yet this "Yah" god is no where mentioned?  And why would they be praising a Yah god when they were supposed to be praising Apollo? Surely it would he something like "alleluapollo" if they were praising Apollo!  Let some better educated scholar step forth out of the moldy, dusty, halls of these higher schools of learning and show us "eleleu ie" was the Greeks saying Praise Yah!  Just step right out and prove it!

According to some scribes the Greek worship word "elluie" is contained in the original Septuagint (LXX) in the Psalms passages they now have interpolated "alleluia" also.  Can men ever keep their nasty hands off the Word of God and let it say what it really said?  Why must they pervert the very Word of God to make their traditions have validity?  It would do honest scholars well to put this Greek shout back in the Word of God where they now have "alleluia" interpolated.  

According to these alleged Greek experts, the Apollo worshipers were influenced to use a Jewish word in worship of their idol.  This is a joke!  Making the Greek praise into a Hebrew/Aramaic praise is a perposterous presupposition and is borderline philological insanity. Some took this Greek word and transposed upon it the Hebrew, and from this solemn form of excitement, which, no doubt, existed prior to the time of David, the ancient Greeks plainly said Eleleu Ih (eleleu ie  he lives!).  I personally believe the Philistines were the same as the Phoenicians and these spoke the same language as the Jews, the Jews adopting this language between 1100-900BC, and when the Phoenicians invaded ancient Greece the word eleleuie remained in the Greek language unchanged from the ancient Paleo Hebrew of that era.  The Jews changed languages and adopted Aramaic and lost many of the old words.  Eleleuie was one they lost and replaced with the paganized hallelu-yah to the yah moon god.  The Greeks took a natural word of worship and praise in their language and used it in their Pæans or Hymns in their praise of an idol named Apollo.  John heard this same word being offered up to Jesus: Eleleuie---HE LIVES! This shows the nations, especially the Greek ones, had transferred to Jesus their worship that he it was who was the LIVING God and who brought salvation, glory, and honour.

C.H. Spurgeon, Psalms 147, Treasury of David

Ver. 1. Praise ye the Lord. Alleluia. An expression in sound very similar to this seems to have been used by many nations, who can hardly be supposed to have borrowed it from the Jews. Is it impossible that this is one of the most ancient expressions of devotion? From the Greeks using eleleu ih, as a solemn beginning and ending of their hymns to Apollo, it should seem that they knew it; it is said also to have been heard among the Indians in America, and Alia, Alla, as the name of God, is used in great part of the East: also in composition. What might be the primitive stock which has furnished such spreading branches? —Augustin Calmer, 1672-1757 (C.H. Spurgeon, Psalms 147, Treasury of David).

Dr. Reckart Note:  Isn't it interesting that Calmer says Praise ye the Lord is the same as "alleluia" as found in Revelation 19, and then when he tries to justify this word he falls flat on his face.  He must admit the word can hardly be supposed to have been borrowed from the Jews.  Yea, he says "impossible." He then feels humbled that he must confess the word "alleluia" is a fabrication replacing the Greek "eleleu ih" which was a solemn word in the hymns of Apollo.  Now lest some of you with unordinary and impossible minds think this is nasty, pagan, and borrowing something from the heathens to worship God; let me remind you there are many Greek religious words used to convey not only Christian revelation, these words brought to the Greeks a new realm of spiritual enlightenment when the Apostles used them in conjunction to the Gospel of Jesus Messieh.

Take the word "Christ" from the Greek "Christos."  This word in the Greek means anointed, to be anointed, to undergo some form of religious ritual where special oils, fragrance, or the like was placed upon a person or thing.  All pagan priest and priestess had a christos ritual.  There were different kinds of christos anointings.  Here comes the Apostles and takes this word to describe the King of Israel who was the Messieh and Saviour of the world.  They used this Greek word to describe the special priesthood of Jesus and his Jewish anointing. The Greeks understood that other religions had their own christos observances.  When the Apostles came preaching that Jesus was the Christos of the Jews, the Greeks perfectly understood what this meant.  We do not get the night sweats that this pagan word was used to give the Greeks a higher enlightenment and revelation.  Take the word "baptizo" (Baptizo or Baptism) was used by Greeks in their temples for their own ritual washings as well as for describing the washing of clothes, cups, bowls, etc.  Any action in which something might be dipped in water was baptizo.  Do we balk and get cross-eyed at this word, its secular and religious uses, and reject is as having no important revelation on the issue of "mode" in this act of faith?  Likewise, why would it seem a strange thing for the Greeks to use a Greek praise to God that they had formerly used for Apollo?  Therefore, the praise "eleleu hi" should have been transliterated into some English form and rendered for its true Greek meaning rather then a substitution of "alleluia" a Jewish form of "praise Yah."  Especially when we discover the multitide speaking in heaven were speaking Greek and not Hebrew.  Likewise, when we discover "Yah" is the name of the moon god of Egypt and ancient paganized Israelites?

We must confess now that "alleluia" is not a Greek word in the text that John wrote but a original Paleo-Hebrew word.  We confess this Hebrew word was retained in the Greek language and its development into modern stages.  We confess that anciently, Hebrew and Greek both came from the ancient Phoencian language and John heard the saints cry "elelu ih, ...eleleu ie" not "alleluia."

Here is an alphabet chart that show Paleo-Hebrew and ancient Greek to be the same language, both having the same Phoenician alphabet and the letters in the exact same order.

In the chart on the left, we compare the Phoenician alphabet with the main branches of the early Greek character compared with the North Semitic alphabet and the classic Greek.  1=North Semitic Phoenician alphabet (Paleo-Hebrew); 2=Earliest Greek character (9th-6th centuries BC; 4-5 Eastern branch (4. Ionic; 5. Attic); 7=Western branch; 9=Classic Greek; 10=Names of the letters (those in parentheses; names of letters now discarded in classic Greek.  

Notice that in Paleo-Hebrew and Greek that they both agree as to order of the alphabet, they both have basically the same appearance with little difference; they both have the same basic pronunciation of the letters, and both Paleo-Hebrew and Greek are in the same family of some older ancient language from which they descend.  To translate Paleo-Hebrew then into Greek is not to miss very much in the way of pronunciation and or meaning associated with word forms.  Also we can see that the ancient Paleo-Hebrew did have vowel useage.  A common lie by scholars is the ancient Hebew did not have vowels and then they show us the Aramaic alphabet! Notice in the coin below the vowels "e and u" are used!

Now, to cement this, look at Genesis 33:20:

--And he erected there an altar, and called it El-elohe-Israel.  

The word "elelohe" is identical with "elelu ih."  The Hebrew word spoken by Jacob nearly 1,800BC was retained in the ancient tongues both as to pronunciation and meaning.  When Jacob named his altar "El-e-lu-he"  after the God of his salvation and help, it is the same name cried by the multitude in heaven "el-e-lu-ie" to Jesus our Lord and Savior!

What does it mean?  It means  Jesus is revealed as the "MIGHTY GOD" of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, who LIVES!

The name elelu-ih may have been used by pagans toward their own idols and gods, but it was first used by Jacob for the true God. I believe the evidence is clear that Jacob got this praise from his father Isaac who got it from Abraham his father, who obtained it by inheritance down through the patriarch lineage from Adam. And who but Adam would know he saw Jesus in the Garden of Eden as God Almighty and there called him elelu ih (mighty God lives).

As for the Septuagint containing "alleluia."

The original Septuagint translated around 300-280BC no longer is in existence. It was in existence at the time of Jesus and the Apostles and they used it exclusively as Scripture. They never used the Babylonian Aramaic translation made around 300BC in Babylon. This Greek bible was quoted by Jesus and the Apostles in the New Testament. Not one time did they write alleluia in 26 books of the bible. It was not until John wrote the book of Revelation around 95AD that we find it now (2000AD) in chapter 19.

The rabbis became angry that the Christians were using their holy Septuagint to prove the validity of Jesus. They used this holy Septuagint from 280BC and held it in high esteem as the Word of God. But around 90AD the surviving rabbis of the Pharisee cult held a conference in Jamia. It was decided to make a new Greek bible and alter the texts that were used to prove Jesus was the Messias. One thing they wanted changed was his virgin birth. So they took out the word for virgin and put in a word to mean simply a woman. Other changes were also made. But get this, when they hired Aquila to make this new Greek translation the original Paleo-Hebrew was lost or destroyed in 70AD. So they could not make a new Greek translation from the original source. What did Aquila do? He took the Babylonian Aramaic translation that Jesus and the Apostles NEVER used and from this he made a Greek translation. Aquila completed his translation around 125AD. He is not the only one who used the Babylonian Aramaic to make a new Greek translation. His translation did not meet the approval of Theodotion (150-200AD) who made his own. Then around 180-190AD along came Symachus who did not like the translations of Aquila or Theodotion so he made his own. Origen placed the original Septuagint, the Greek by Aquila, the Greek by Theodotion, the Greek by Symachus, the Babylonian Aramaic (falsely called Hebrew), and the Secunda a joint Aramaic and Greek compiled by Origen himself. Later, he would find two more Greek translations to compare bringing his collection to 8 different bibles.

All of the Greek translations from the Babylonian Aramaic (Aquila, Theodotion, Symachus, Secunda, and the two others) contained "alleluia." why would they not, since the Aramaic contained it in several of the Psalms and in no other place. Strange that such a word was never in comon use throughout the whole of the Old Testament. Only found in the Babylonian Aramaic.

As there were many alterations in the Greek translations to trash the Septuagint, we can only conclude that there was no attempt of translation with the fear of God. To alter the bible in hundreds of places was of no shame. After all, who could challenge their private interpretations? The original Paleo-Hebrew had been lost or destroyed over 170 years prior to the work of Origen.

We now know alleluia is a praise to a god named "ia." We now know this "ia" is Yah, Jah, Jehovah, Yahweh, and Baal. It would have been an enorouus sin of idolatry for the name of a pagan deity to be praised by David or the Jews. It is therefor unacceptable that the original Septuagint contained alleluia. This praise found its way into later editions of the Septuagint as well as other changed borrowed from the Greek translations from the Aramaic language.

For this reason, for anyone to claim alleluia is a valid praise to Jesus Christ is dangerous compromise that puts idolatry on the lips of people who do not want to praise a false god. To seduce a person to praise a false deity by claiming they are unable to discover if the Septuagint contained alleluia or not is novice foolishness.

For a comprehensive study on the name of Jesus click here

To read more about Yahweh and the moon god Yah click here

Dr. G. Reckart
Jesus-Messieh Fellowship

Tracing The Origin Of An Idol god